arya
2013-12-07 10:59:34 UTC
a) Fs>Fa
b)Fs=fa
c)Fs=m*g*µ
all of the three answers can be correct but which is the best answer? and please explain your reasoning, i know most people would say that the friction force is equal to the applied force, because if friction force was bigger than it move the other way. i don't think that would work because of the fact that friction force would cancel it self out. i think the answer should be a) because the formula for friction force is always constant, and the mew is always constant so it doesn't matter what the applied force is because friction is always the same force.