An object has mass m and it is subjected to a force F. The resulting acceleration of the object is a. Is the relation F=ma valid for all situations? I'm completely stumped at how to answer this in about 3 sentences lol, any help?
Four answers:
xdugu
2010-06-15 02:46:44 UTC
i may not give a definate answer but i think that the physics a learnt a year ago could come into play. the equation f=ma suggests that as long as a force is constantly applied to an object, it accelerates assuming its mass is constant. however in real life eg cars have a speed limit where there is no more acceleration, forces like drag affect the resultant force produced and so the acceleration of the car begins to decrease. in conclusion, f=ma is true if there is only one force acting on an object with no other forces acting on the object. also to note is that "f" is the resultant force.
anonymous
2010-06-15 02:46:56 UTC
Mass by acceleration is equal to force. Although it seems like it should be velocity instead of acceleration, since not all moving objects are necessarily accelerating.
Say mass is 2 kg, and acceleration is 2 m/s^2 (2 meters per second, per second).
2*2^2=8.
Though, what unit the product is expressed in, I don't know.
Retsum
2010-06-15 02:40:40 UTC
F = ma
If an unbalanced force F acts on an object of constant mass m, it produces a constant acceleration a. A situation where it would not apply would be a rocket which is consuming fuel (and losing mass) as it takes off.
A more general form of the equation is
F = dp/dt [=rate of change of momentum]
Chicken God
2010-06-15 02:50:18 UTC
F=ma is not valid in all situations. As others have noted, if the mass changes, then F=ma doesn't work. F=ma also doesn't work in Relativity and Quantum Mechanics.
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